Indian Politics GK MCQ Questions SET-4 with Answers free PDF Download

We have provide GK MCQ Questions for Indian Politics GK questions with Answers free PDF. Download based on the important concepts and topics given in the textbook as per new exam pattern. All these Indian Politics GK MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers provided here with detailed solutions. Use them as reference and be confident in the actual exam by practicing the MCQ Quiz Questions of Indian Politics GK. Each question has four options followed by the right answer.

MCQ Questions for Indian Politics GK with Answers

Q1. When were the fundamental duties inserted in Indian constitution?

(i) 1971
(ii) 1972
(iii) 1975
(iv) 1976

(iv) 1976

Q2. The system of Budget was introduced in India during the Viceroyalty of-

(i) Canning
(ii) Dalhousie
(iii) Ripon
(iv) Elgin

(i) Canning

Q3. Indian Parliament is capable of making any law for any state, if-

(i) Emergency is enforced under Article-352
(ii) Two or more states request for that
(iii) President sends a message to the Parliament
(iv) (i) and (ii) both

(iv) (i) and (ii) both

Q4. Telugu is the official language of –

(i) Andhra Pradesh
(ii) Arunachal Pradesh
(iii) Assam
(iv) Bihar

(i) Andhra Pradesh

Q5. In which year was the First Five Year Plan launched in India?

(i) 1921
(ii) 1931
(iii) 1941
(iv) 1951

(iv) 1951

Q6. The concept of Lokpal has been taken from-

(i) Britain
(ii) America
(iii) Scandinavian countries
(iv) France

(iii) Scandinavian countries

Q7. The committee which was appointed to identify the creamy layer among the OBCs was :

(i) M K Lodha Commitee
(ii) Sardar Swaran Singh Committee
(iii) Ram Nandan Committee
(iv) None of these

(iii) Ram Nandan Committee

Q8. The Nagaland State of India cannot be termed as a state because it lacks

(i) sovereignty
(ii) bicameral legislature
(iii) a high court exclusively of its own
(iv) None of the above

(i) sovereignty

Q9. Who said that the “emergency financial provisions pose a serious threat to the financial autonomy of the States”?

(i) T.T. Krishnamachari
(ii) K.T. Shah
(iii) H.V. Kamath
(iv) H.N. Kunzru

(iv) H.N. Kunzru

Q10. A person to be eligible for election as president of India should have completed

(i) 25 years
(ii) 21 years
(iii) 30 years
(iv) 35 years

(iv) 35 years

Q11. The Committee appointed in 1977 to review working of the Panchayati Raj was chaired by-

(i) Balwant Rai Mehta
(ii) Ashok Mehta
(iii) K.N. Katju
(iv) Jagjivan Ram

(iii) K.N. Katju

Q12. No person shall be a citizen of India if he has-

(i) Lived in a foreign country for more than five years
(ii) Been convicted by a foreign court of law
(iii) Voluntarily acquired citizenship of another country
(iv) Accepted employment in another country

(iii) Voluntarily acquired citizenship of another country

Q13. Which of th e following amendment act is related to goods and services tax (GST)?

(i) 101st
(ii) 118th
(iii) 257th
(iv) 94th

(i) 101st

Q14. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force-

(i) For three months
(ii) For six months
(iii) For nine months
(iv) Indefinitely

(ii) For six months

Q15. Which item out of the following is contained in the concurrent list?

(i) Trade Unions
(ii) Agriculture
(iii) Tolls
(iv) Markets and Fairs

(i) Trade Unions

Q16. India is a republic because-

(i) It is democratic country
(ii) It is a parliamentary democracy
(iii) The head of the state is elected for a definite period
(iv) All of these

(iii) The head of the state is elected for a definite period

Q17. Fundamental duties are included in the Indian Constitution by the Amendment-

(i) 44th
(ii) 42th
(iii) 26th
(iv) 25th

(ii) 42th

Q18. Indian federalism is closer to-

(i) Nigeria
(ii) Australia
(iii) Canada
(iv) USA

(iii) Canada

Q19. Which of the following High Courts jurisdiction extends to more than one state or Union Territory?

(i) Gujarat
(ii) Allahabad
(iii) Mumbai
(iv) Delhi

(iii) Mumbai

Q20. The members of the standing committee are taken from the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in the ratio of

(i) two and one respectively
(ii) three and one respectively
(iii) four and one respectively
(iv) equal members for both the Houses

(i) two and one respectively

Q21. Granville Austin has described the Directive principles and the fundamental rights as

(i) The heart of the Constitution
(ii) The conscience of the Constitution
(iii) The back bone of the Constitution
(iv) None of these

(ii) The conscience of the Constitution

Q22. Fazl Ali Commission appointed in December 1953 to consider the question of state reorganization accepted :

(i) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
(ii) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(iii) Language as the basis of reorganization of states
(iv) None of Above

(iii) Language as the basis of reorganization of states

Q23. The members of the Rajya Sabha are

(i) directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise
(ii) elected by the members of the state legislative assemblies
(iii) elected by the members of the state legislative councils
(iv) elected by the members of the state legislative councils and state legislative assemblies

(ii) elected by the members of the state legislative assemblies

Q24. Answer the name of two temporary houses of parliamentary structure of India-

(i) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assembly
(ii) Lok Sabha and Legislative Council
(iii) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Council
(iv) Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly

(iv) Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly

Q25. What was the exact constitutional position of the Indian Republic when the Constitution was brought into force with effect from 26th January, 1950?

(i) A Democratic Republic
(ii) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(iii) Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(iv) A Sovereign Secular Soicalist Democratic Republic

(ii) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

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